COLORADO Midwives Statute 

12-37-101. Scope of article - exemptions.
12-37-102. Definitions.
12-37-103. Requirement for registration with the division of registrations - annual fee - grounds for revocation.
12-37-104. Mandatory disclosure of information to patients.
12-37-105. Prohibited acts - practice standards - informed consent - emergency plan - risk assessment - referral.
12-37-106. Director - powers and duties.
12-37-107. Disciplinary action authorized - grounds for discipline.
12-37-108. Criminal penalties.
12-37-109. Assumption of risk - no vicarious liability - legislative declaration.
12-37-109.5. Immunity.
12-37-109.7. Confidential files.
12-37-110. Repeal of article.

 

12-37-101. Scope of article - exemptions. (1) The provisions of this article shall apply only to direct-entry midwives, also known as "lay" midwives, and shall not apply to those persons who are otherwise licensed by the state of Colorado under this title if the practice of midwifery is within the scope of such licensure. No person who is a licensed health care provider under any other article of this title shall simultaneously be so licensed and also be registered under this article, but a health care provider who is registered under article 29.5 of this title may also be registered under this article. A licensed health care provider who holds a license in good standing may relinquish said license and subsequently be registered under this article. It is the intent of the general assembly that health care be provided pursuant to this article as an alternative to traditional licensed health care and not for the purpose of enabling providers of traditional licensed health care to circumvent the regulatory oversight to which they are otherwise subject under any other article of this title.
(2) Nothing in this article shall be construed to prohibit, or to require registration under this article, with regard to:
(a) The gratuitous rendering of services in an emergency;
(b) The rendering of services by a physician licensed pursuant to article 36 of this title or otherwise legally authorized to practice in this state;
(c) The rendering of services by certified nurse-midwives properly licensed and practicing in accordance with the provisions of article 38 of this title; or
(d) The practice by persons licensed or registered under any law of this state, in accordance with such law, to practice a limited field of the healing arts not specifically designated in this section.

 

12-37-102. Definitions. As used in this article, unless the context otherwise requires:
(1) "Direct-entry midwife" means a person who practices traditional, direct-entry midwifery as defined in subsection (2) of this section for compensation.
(2) "Direct-entry midwifery" or "practice of direct-entry midwifery" means the advising, attending, or assisting of a woman during pregnancy, labor and natural childbirth at home, and during the postpartum period in accordance with this article.
(3) "Director" means the director of the division of registrations in the department of regulatory agencies.
(4) "Natural childbirth" means the birth of a child without the use of prescription drugs, instruments, or surgical procedures.
(5) "Postpartum period" means the period of six weeks after birth.
(6) "Registrant" means a direct-entry midwife registered pursuant to section 12-37-103.

 

12-37-103. Requirement for registration with the division of registrations - annual fee - grounds for revocation. (1) Every direct-entry midwife shall register with the division of registrations by providing an application to the director in the form the director shall require. Said application shall include the information specified in section 12-37-104.
(2) Any changes in the information required by subsection (1) of this section shall be reported within thirty days of said change to the division of registrations in the manner prescribed by the director.
(3) Every applicant for registration shall pay an annual registration fee to be established by the director in the manner authorized by section 24-34-105, C.R.S.
(4) (Deleted by amendment, L. 96, p. 395, § 2, effective April 17, 1996.)
(4.5) A person who has had his or her registration revoked shall not apply for reregistration until at least two years have elapsed since the date of the revocation.
(5) To qualify to register, a direct-entry midwife shall have successfully completed an examination evaluated and approved by the director as an appropriate test to measure competency in the practice of direct-entry midwifery, which examination shall have been developed by a person or entity other than the director or the division and the acquisition of which shall require no expenditure of state funds. The national registry examination administered by the midwives' alliance of North America, incorporated, shall be among those evaluated by the director. The director is authorized to approve any existing test meeting all the criteria set forth in this subsection (5). In addition to successfully completing such examination, a direct-entry midwife shall be deemed qualified to register if such person has:
(a) Attained the age of nineteen years;
(b) Earned at least a high school diploma or the equivalent;
(c) Successfully completed training approved by the director in:
(I) The provision of care during labor and delivery and during the antepartum and postpartum periods;
(II) Parenting education for prepared childbirth;
(III) Aseptic techniques and universal precautions;
(IV) Management of birth and immediate care of the mother and the newborn;
(V) Recognition of early signs of possible abnormalities;
(VI) Recognition and management of emergency situations;
(VII) Special requirements for home birth;
(VIII) Recognition of communicable diseases affecting the pregnancy, birth, newborn, and postpartum periods; and
(IX) Recognition of the signs and symptoms of increased risk of medical, obstetric, or neonatal complications or problems as set forth in section 12-37-105 (3).
(d) Acquired practical experience in a home setting, including, at a minimum, apprenticeship providing experience with the conduct of one hundred prenatal examinations on no fewer than thirty different women and observation of thirty births;
(e) Following completion of the education, training, and experience enumerated in paragraphs (a) to (d) of this subsection (5), supervised participation as the primary birth attendant, including rendering care from the prenatal period through the postpartum period, in connection with no less than thirty births; and
(f) Filed documentation with the director that the direct-entry midwife is currently certified by the American heart association or the American red cross to perform adult and infant cardiopulmonary resuscitation ("CPR").

12-37-104. Mandatory disclosure of information to patients. (1) Every direct-entry midwife shall provide the following information in writing to each patient during the initial patient contact:
(a) The name, business address, and business phone number of the direct-entry midwife;
(b) A listing of the direct-entry midwife's education, experience, degrees, membership in any professional organization whose membership includes not less than one-third of all registrants, certificates or credentials related to direct-entry midwifery awarded by any such organization, and the length of time and number of contact hours required to obtain said degrees, certificates, or credentials;
(c) A statement indicating whether or not the direct-entry midwife is covered under a policy of liability insurance for the practice of direct-entry midwifery;
(d) A listing of any license, certificate, or registration in the health care field previously held by the direct-entry midwife and revoked by any local, state, or national health care agency;
(e) A statement that the practice of direct-entry midwifery is regulated by the department of regulatory agencies. The statement shall provide the address and telephone number of the complaints and investigations section of the division of registrations in the department of regulatory agencies and shall state that violation of the provisions of this article may result in revocation of registration and of the authority to practice direct-entry midwifery in the state of Colorado; and
(f) A copy of the emergency plan as provided in section 12-37-105 (6).
(2) Any changes in the information required by subsection (1) of this section shall be reflected in the mandatory disclosure within five days of the said change.
(3) For purposes of registration under this article, no credentials, licensure, or certification issued by any other state shall constitute or be deemed to meet the requirements of this article, and to that extent there shall be no reciprocity with other states.

12-37-105. Prohibited acts - practice standards - informed consent - emergency plan - risk assessment - referral. (1) A direct-entry midwife shall not dispense or administer any medication or drugs except for required eye prophylactic therapy.
(2) A direct-entry midwife shall not perform any operative or surgical procedure.
(3) A direct-entry midwife shall not provide care to a pregnant woman who, according to generally accepted medical standards, exhibits signs or symptoms of increased risk of medical or obstetric or neonatal complications or problems during the completion of her pregnancy, labor, delivery, or the postpartum period. Such conditions include but are not limited to signs or symptoms of diabetes, multiple gestation, hypertensive disorder, or abnormal presentation of the fetus.
(4) A direct-entry midwife shall not provide care to a pregnant woman who, according to generally accepted medical standards, exhibits signs or symptoms of increased risk that her child may develop complications or problems during the first six weeks of life.
(5) (a) A direct-entry midwife shall keep appropriate records of midwifery-related activity, including but not limited to the following:
(I) The direct-entry midwife shall complete and file a birth certificate for every delivery in accordance with section 25-2-112, C.R.S.
(II) The direct-entry midwife shall complete and maintain appropriate client records for every client.
(III) Prior to accepting a client for care, the direct-entry midwife shall obtain the client's informed consent, which shall be evidenced by a written statement in a form prescribed by the director and signed by both the direct-entry midwife and the client. The form shall certify that full disclosure has been made and acknowledged by the client as to each of the following items, with the client's acknowledgment evidenced by a separate signature or initials adjacent to each item in addition to the client's signature at the end of the form:
(A) The direct-entry midwife's educational background and training;
(B) The nature and scope of the care to be given, including the possibility of and procedure for transport of the client to a hospital and transferral of care prenatally;
(C) The available alternatives to direct-entry midwifery care;
(D) A description of the risks of birth, including but not limited to those that are different from those of hospital birth and including but not limited to those conditions that may arise during delivery;
(E) A statement indicating whether or not the direct-entry midwife is covered under a policy of liability insurance for the practice of direct-entry midwifery; and
(F) A statement informing the client that, in the event subsequent care is required resulting from the acts or omissions of the direct-entry midwife, any physician, nurse, prehospital emergency personnel, and health care institution rendering such care shall be held only to a standard of gross negligence or willful and wanton conduct.
(IV) Until such time as the liability insurance required pursuant to section 12-37-109 (3) is available, each direct-entry midwife shall, prior to accepting a client for care, provide such client with a disclosure statement indicating that the midwife does not have liability insurance. Such statement shall be printed in at least twelve-point bold-faced type and shall be read to the client in a language she understands. Each client shall sign the disclosure statement acknowledging that she understands the effect of its provisions. A copy of the signed disclosure statement shall be given to the client.
(b) As used in this subsection (5), "full disclosure" includes reading the informed consent form to the client, in a language understood by the client, and answering any relevant questions.
(6) A direct-entry midwife shall prepare a plan and procedure, in a form prescribed by the director, for emergency situations which shall include, but not be limited to, situations in which the time required for transportation to the nearest facility capable of providing appropriate treatment exceeds limits established by the director by rule. A copy of such plan shall be given to each client as part of the informed consent required by subsection (5) of this section.
(7) A direct-entry midwife shall prepare and transmit appropriate specimens for newborn screening in accordance with section 25-4-1004, C.R.S.
(8) A direct-entry midwife shall ensure that appropriate laboratory testing, as determined by the director, is completed for each pregnant woman in such direct-entry midwife's care.
(9) A direct-entry midwife shall provide eye prophylactic therapy to all newborn children in such direct-entry midwife's care in accordance with section 25-4-303, C.R.S.
(10) A direct-entry midwife shall be knowledgeable and skilled in aseptic procedures and the use of universal precautions and shall use them with every client.
(11) To assure that proper risk assessment is completed and that clients who are inappropriate for direct-entry midwifery are referred to other health care providers, the director shall establish, by rule, a risk assessment procedure to be followed by a direct-entry midwife for each client and standards for appropriate referral. Such assessment shall be a part of each client's record as required in section 12-37-105 (5) (a) (II).
(12) At the time of re-registration, each registrant shall submit the following data on a form prescribed by the director:
(a) The number of women to whom care was provided since the previous registration;
(b) The number of deliveries performed;
(c) The apgar scores of delivered infants, in groupings established by the director;
(d) The number of prenatal transfers;
(e) The number of transfers during labor, delivery, and immediately following birth;
(f) Any perinatal deaths; and
(g) Other morbidity statistics as required by the director.
(13) It shall be lawful for a registered direct-entry midwife to purchase, possess, carry, and administer oxygen. The department of regulatory agencies shall promulgate rules concerning minimum training requirements for direct-entry midwives with respect to the safe administration of oxygen to patients. Each direct-entry midwife registered pursuant to this article shall complete the minimum training requirements and submit proof of having completed such requirements to the director before administering oxygen to any patient.

12-37-106. Director - powers and duties. (1) In addition to any other powers and duties conferred on the director by law, the director has the following powers and duties:
(a) To adopt such rules and regulations as may be necessary to carry out the provisions of this article;
(b) To establish the fees for registration and renewal of registration in the manner authorized by section 24-34-105, C.R.S.;
(c) To prepare or adopt suitable education standards for applicants and to adopt a registration examination;
(d) To accept applications for registration which meet the requirements set forth in this article, and to collect the annual registration fees authorized by this article;
(e) To seek, through the office of the attorney general, an injunction in any court of competent jurisdiction to enjoin any person from committing any act prohibited by this article. When seeking an injunction under this paragraph (e), the director shall not be required to allege or prove the inadequacy of any remedy at law or that substantial or irreparable damage is likely to result from a continued violation of this article.

 

Source: L. 93: Entire article RC&RE, p. 1918, § 2, effective July 1. L. 96: (1)(c) amended, p. 397, § 5, effective April 17.

12-37-107. Disciplinary action authorized - grounds for discipline. (1) If a direct-entry midwife has violated any of the provisions of section 12-37-103, 12-37-104, 12-37-105, or 12-37-109 (3), the director may deny, revoke, or suspend any registration, issue a letter of admonition to a registrant, place a registrant on probation, or apply for a temporary or permanent injunction against a direct-entry midwife, through the attorney general, in any court of competent jurisdiction, enjoining such direct-entry midwife from practicing midwifery or committing any violation of the provisions of the said section 12-37-103, 12-37-104, 12-37-105, or 12-37-109 (3). Such injunctive proceedings shall be in addition to and not in lieu of any other penalties or remedies provided in this article.
(2) As an alternative to or in addition to a suspension or revocation of registration under section 12-37-103 (4), the director may assess a civil penalty in the form of a fine, not to exceed five thousand dollars, for any act or omission enumerated in the said section.
(3) The director has the power to deny, revoke, or suspend any registration or to issue a letter of admonition or place a registrant on probation for any of the following acts or omissions:
(a) Any violation of the provisions of section 12-37-103, 12-37-104, 12-37-105, or 12-37-109 (3) or any rule promulgated pursuant to section 12-37-106 (1) (a);
(b) Failing to provide any information required pursuant to or to pay any fee assessed in accordance with section 12-37-103, or providing false, deceptive, or misleading information to the division of registrations that the direct-entry midwife knew or should reasonably have known was false, deceptive, or misleading;
(c) Engaging in any act or omission that does not meet generally accepted standards of safe care for women and infants, whether or not actual injury to a patient is established;
(d) Habitual intemperance with regard to or excessive use of a habit-forming drug, as defined in section 12-22-102 (13), a controlled substance, as defined in section 12-22-303 (7), or an alcoholic beverage;
(e) Has procured or attempted to procure a registration in this or any other state or jurisdiction by fraud, deceit, misrepresentation, misleading omission, or material misstatement of fact;
(f) Has had a license or registration to practice direct-entry midwifery or any other health care occupation suspended or revoked in any jurisdiction. A certified copy of the order of suspension or revocation shall be prima facie evidence of such suspension or revocation.
(g) Violation of any law or regulation governing the practice of direct-entry midwifery in another state or jurisdiction. A plea of nolo contendere or its equivalent accepted by any state agency of another state or jurisdiction may be considered to be the same as a finding of violation for purposes of a proceeding under this article.
(h) Has falsified, failed to make essential entries in, or in a negligent manner made incorrect entries in client records;
(i) Has been convicted of a felony or has had accepted by a court a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to a felony. A certified copy of the judgment of a court of competent jurisdiction of such conviction or plea shall be prima facie evidence of such conviction.
(j) Has violated any provision of this article or has aided or knowingly permitted any person to violate any provision of this article; or
(k) Has advertised through newspapers, magazines, circulars, direct mail, directories, radio, television, or otherwise that the registrant will perform any act prohibited by this article.
(4) Any proceeding to deny, suspend, or revoke a registration or place a registrant on probation shall be conducted pursuant to sections 24-4-104 and 24-4-105, C.R.S. Such proceeding may be conducted by an administrative law judge designated pursuant to part 10 of article 30 of title 24, C.R.S.
(5) The director may accept as prima facie evidence of grounds for disciplinary action any disciplinary action taken against a registrant by another jurisdiction if the violation that prompted such disciplinary action would be grounds for disciplinary action under this article.
(6) To aid the director in any hearing or investigation instituted pursuant to this section, the director shall have the power to issue subpoenas commanding the appearance of persons and the production of copies of records containing information relevant to the practice of direct-entry midwifery rendered by any registrant, including, but not limited to, hospital and physician records. The provider of such copies shall prepare the copies from the original record and shall delete the name of the patient, to be retained by the custodian of the records from which the copies were made, but shall identify the patient by a numbered code. Upon certification by the custodian that the copies are true and complete except for the patient's name, the copies shall be deemed authentic, subject to the right to inspect the originals for the limited purpose of ascertaining the accuracy of the copies. No privilege of confidentiality shall exist with respect to such copies and no liability shall lie against the director or the custodian or the director's or custodian's authorized employees for furnishing or using such copies in accordance with this section.

12-37-108. Criminal penalties. Any person who practices or offers or attempts to practice direct-entry midwifery without first complying with the registration requirements of section 12-37-103 and the disclosure requirements of section 12-37-104 commits a class 2 misdemeanor and shall be punished as provided in section 18-1-106, C.R.S., for the first offense, and for the second or any subsequent offense, such person commits a class 6 felony and shall be punished as provided in section 18-1-105, C.R.S.

12-37-109. Assumption of risk - no vicarious liability - legislative declaration. (1) (a) The general assembly hereby finds, determines, and declares that the authority granted in this article for the provision of unlicensed midwifery services does not constitute an endorsement of such practices, and that it is incumbent upon the individual seeking such services to ascertain the qualifications of the registrant direct-entry midwife. It is the policy of this state that registrants shall be liable for their acts or omissions in the performance of the services that they provide, and that no licensed physician, nurse, prehospital emergency medical personnel, or health care institution shall be liable for any act or omission resulting from the administration of services by any registrant. The provisions of this subsection (1) shall not relieve any physician, nurse, prehospital emergency personnel, or health care institution from liability for any willful and wanton act or omission or any act or omission constituting gross negligence, or under circumstances where a registrant has a business or supervised relationship with any such physician, nurse, prehospital emergency personnel, or health care institution. A physician, nurse, prehospital emergency personnel, or health care institution may provide consultation or education to the registrant without establishing a business or supervisory relationship.
(b) The general assembly further finds, determines, and declares that the limitation on liability provided in section 13-64-302, C.R.S., is predicated upon full licensure, discipline, and regulatory oversight and that the practice of unlicensed midwifery by registrants pursuant to this article is authorized as an alternative to such full licensure, discipline, and regulatory oversight and is therefore not subject to the limitations provided in section 13-64-302, C.R.S.
(2) Nothing in this article shall be construed to indicate or imply that a registrant providing services under this article is a licensed health care provider for the purposes of reimbursement by any health insurer, third party payer, or governmental health care program.
(3) At such time as the director finds that liability insurance is available at an affordable price, the direct-entry midwife shall be required to carry such insurance.

12-37-109.5. Immunity. The director, division, staff, any person acting as a consultant to the director, any witness testifying in a proceeding authorized under this article, and any person who lodges a complaint pursuant to this article shall be immune from criminal liability and suit in any civil action brought by any person based upon an action of the director if such person, staff person, consultant, or witness acts in good faith within the scope of this article, has made a reasonable effort to ascertain the facts of the matter as to which he or she acts, and acts in the reasonable belief that the action taken by him or her is warranted by the facts. The immunity provided by this section shall also extend to any person participating in good faith in any investigative proceeding pursuant to this article.

Source: L. 96: Entire section added, p. 399, § 8, effective April 17.

12-37-109.7. Confidential files. The director may keep confidential all files and information concerning an investigation authorized under this article until the results of such investigation are provided to the director and either the complaint is dismissed or notice of hearing and charges are served upon the registrant.

Source: L. 96: Entire section added, p. 399, § 8, effective April 17.

12-37-110. Repeal of article. (1) This article is repealed, effective July 1, 2001.
(2) Prior to such repeal, the registering of direct-entry midwives by the division of registrations shall be reviewed as provided in section 24-34-104, C.R.S.

12-36-106. Practice of medicine defined - exemptions from licensing requirements - repeal. 
(1) For the purpose of this article, "practice of medicine" means:
(a) Holding out one's self to the public within this state as being able to diagnose, treat, prescribe for, palliate, or prevent any human disease, ailment, pain, injury, deformity, or physical or mental condition, whether by the use of drugs, surgery, manipulation, electricity, telemedicine, the interpretation of tests, including primary diagnosis of pathology specimens, images, or photographs, or any physical, mechanical, or other means whatsoever;
(b) Suggesting, recommending, prescribing, or administering any form of treatment, operation, or healing for the intended palliation, relief, or cure of any physical or mental disease, ailment, injury, condition, or defect of any person with the intention of receiving therefor, either directly or indirectly, any fee, gift, or compensation whatsoever;
(c) The maintenance of an office or other place for the purpose of examining or treating persons afflicted with disease, injury, or defect of body or mind;
(d) Using the title M.D., D.O., physician, surgeon, or any word or abbreviation to indicate or induce others to believe that one is licensed to practice medicine in this state and engaged in the diagnosis or treatment of persons afflicted with disease, injury, or defect of body or mind, except as otherwise expressly permitted by the laws of this state enacted relating to the practice of any limited field of the healing arts;
(e) Performing any kind of surgical operation upon a human being; or
(f) The practice of midwifery, except:
(I) Services rendered by certified nurse-midwives properly licensed and practicing in accordance with the provisions of article 38 of this title; or
(II) (A) Services rendered by a person properly registered as a direct-entry midwife and practicing in accordance with the provisions of article 37 of this title.
(B) This subparagraph (II) is repealed, effective July 1, 2001.
(2) If any person who does not possess and has not filed a license to practice medicine within this state, as provided in this article, and who is not exempted from the licensing requirements under this section, shall do any of the acts mentioned in this section as constituting the practice of medicine, he shall be deemed to be practicing medicine without complying with the provisions of this article and in violation thereof.
(3) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit, or to require a license under this article with respect to, any of the following acts:
(a) The gratuitous rendering of services in cases of emergency;
(b) The rendering of services in this state by a physician lawfully practicing medicine in another state or territory, whether or not such physician is in Colorado, but if any such physician does not limit such services to an occasional consultation or case or if such physician has any established or regularly used hospital connections in this state or if such physician is party to any contract, agreement, or understanding to provide the services described in paragraph (a) of subsection (1) of this section or if such physician maintains or is provided with for his or her regular use any office or other place for the rendering of such services, such physician shall possess a license to practice medicine in this state;
(c) The practice of dentistry under the conditions and limitations defined by the laws of this state;
(d) The practice of podiatry under the conditions and limitations defined by the laws of this state;
(e) The practice of optometry under the conditions and limitations defined by the laws of this state;
(f) The practice of chiropractic under the conditions and limitations defined by the laws of this state;
(g) The practice of religious worship;
(h) The practice of Christian Science, with or without compensation;
(i) The performance by commissioned medical officers of the armed forces of the United States of America or of the United States public health service or of the United States veterans administration of their lawful duties in this state as such officers;
(j) The rendering of nursing services and delegated medical functions by registered or other nurses in the lawful discharge of their duties as such;
(k) The rendering of services by students currently enrolled in an approved medical college, interns, or residents in a hospital or other place as required by their approved educational program subject to the conditions and limitations provided by this article;
(l) The rendering of services, other than the prescribing of drugs, by persons qualified by experience, education, or training, under the personal and responsible direction and supervision of a person licensed under the laws of this state to practice medicine, but nothing in this exemption shall be deemed to extend or limit the scope of any license, and this exemption shall not apply to persons otherwise qualified to practice medicine but not licensed to so practice in this state;
(m) The practice by persons licensed or registered under any law of this state to practice a limited field of the healing arts not specifically designated in this section, under the conditions and limitations defined by such law;
(n) (Deleted by amendment, L. 2000, p. 30, § 1, effective March 10, 2000.)
(o) (I) The administration and monitoring of medications in facilities as provided in section 25-1-107 (1) (ee), C.R.S.
(II) This paragraph (o) is repealed, effective July 1, 2009. Prior to such repeal, the exemption to licensure requirement set forth in this paragraph (o) shall be subject to review by a legislative committee of reference designated pursuant to section 2-3-1201, C.R.S., to conduct the review pursuant to section 24-34-104, C.R.S., and the provisions of section 24-34-104 (5) to (12), C.R.S., concerning a wind-up period, an analysis and evaluation, public hearings, and claims by or against an agency shall apply to the operation of the program specified in this paragraph (o).
(p) The rendering of acupuncture services subject to the conditions and limitations provided in article 29.5 of this title;
(q) (I) The administration of nutrition or fluids through gastrostomy tubes as provided in section 27-10.5-103 (2) (k), C.R.S., as a part of residential or day program services provided through service agencies approved by the department of human services pursuant to section 27-10.5-104.5, C.R.S.
(II) Repealed.
(r) The administration of topical and aerosol medications within the scope of physical therapy practice as provided in section 12-41-113 (2);
(s) The rendering of services by an athletic trainer subject to the conditions and limitations provided in subsection (3.5) of this section;
(t) (I) The rendering of prescriptions by an advanced practice nurse pursuant to section 12-38-111.6.
(II) A physician who signs a collaborative agreement with an advanced practice nurse pursuant to the requirements of section 12-38-111.6 (4) (d) shall have a license in good standing without disciplinary sanctions to practice medicine in Colorado and an unrestricted registration by the drug enforcement administration for the same schedules as the collaborating advanced practice nurse.
(III) (A) Except as provided in sub-subparagraph (C) of this subparagraph (III), a physician may not enter into more than five collaborative agreements in accordance with section 12-38-111.6.
(B) It is unlawful and a violation of this article for any person, corporation, or other entity to require as a condition of contract, employment, or compensation to exceed the limitation set pursuant to sub-subparagraph (A) of this subparagraph (III).
(C) The board may waive the maximum number of advanced practice nurses with whom a physician may sign a collaborative agreement for a specific physician upon a finding that quality patient care can be maintained.
(u) (I) The provision, to a treating physician licensed in this state, of the results of laboratory tests, excluding histopathology tests and cytology tests, performed in a laboratory certified under the federal "Clinical Laboratories Improvement Act of 1967", as amended, 42 U.S.C. sec. 263a, to perform high complexity testing, as such term is used in 42 C.F.R. 493.1701 and any related or successor provision.
(II) The provision, to a pathologist licensed in this state, of the results of histopathology tests and cytology tests performed in a laboratory certified under the federal "Clinical Laboratories Improvement Act of 1967", as amended, 42 U.S.C. sec. 263a, to perform high complexity testing, as such term is used in 42 C.F.R. 493.1701 and any related or successor provision.
(3.2) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit patient consultation between a practicing physician licensed in Colorado and a practicing physician licensed in another state or jurisdiction.
(3.5) (a) The state board of medical examiners shall promulgate rules and regulations specifying the types of services which a qualified athletic trainer may render pursuant to paragraph (s) of subsection (3) of this section. In order to qualify for the exception allowed pursuant to said paragraph (s), such services must be rendered only by qualified athletic trainers who render the services, within the athletic trainer scope of practice as defined pursuant to this subsection (3.5), in the course of participation in an educational institution's sports program, an organized amateur sports organization, a professional sports organization, a recreational program of a county, municipal, or special district government, or an organized community sports event.
(b) For purposes of this subsection (3.5), "qualified athletic trainer" means a person:
(I) Who has a baccalaureate degree granted by an accredited college or university or a college or university approved by the state educational board or department in another state, which degree is in a field related to athletic training as defined by the college or university which granted the degree, and who has completed a minimum of one thousand five hundred actual hours of supervised clinical experience or internship training in athletic training under the supervision of a person accredited by a national athletic training standards organization designated by the state board of medical examiners; or
(II) Who has a baccalaureate degree with a major in athletic training which was granted through a college or university program which is accredited by a national athletic training standards organization designated by the state board of medical examiners and who has completed a minimum of eight hundred actual hours of supervised clinical experience or internship in athletic training under the supervision of a person accredited by a national athletic training standards organization designated by the state board of medical examiners.
(c) For purposes of this subsection (3.5), "athlete" means an individual participating in an educational institution's sports program, an organized sports organization, a professional sports organization, a recreational program of a county, municipal, or special district government, or an organized community sports event.
(d) For purposes of this subsection (3.5), "athletic trainer scope of practice" means the performance of all or some of the following functions by a qualified athletic trainer:
(I) The development and implementation of conditioning programs for athletes as defined in paragraph (c) of this subsection (3.5);
(II) The performance of strength testing using mechanical devices or other standard techniques;
(III) The application of tape, braces, and protective device to prevent injury;
(IV) The supervision of maintenance of athletic equipment to assure safety;
(V) The assessment, during a screening process, of physical limitations, including those previously diagnosed by a physician, which may pose a risk of injury to an athlete;
(VI) The determination of the level of functional capacity, decreased range of motion or muscular weakness of an injured athlete in order to establish the extent of an injury;
(VII) The administration of standard techniques of first aid;
(VIII) The use of emergency care equipment to aid the injured athlete by facilitating safe transportation to an appropriate medical facility;
(IX) The referral of an athlete to appropriate medical personnel as needed;
(X) The use of exercise and other therapies for which the athletic trainer has received formal training, not including drugs, to restore an injured athlete to normal function;
(XI) The maintenance of athletic training records;
(XII) The organization of a medical care service delivery system for athletes when needed;
(XIII) The establishment of plans to manage an athlete's medical emergencies;
(XIV) The education and counseling of athletes on sports health related topics;
(XV) The instruction of student athletic trainers; and
(XVI) The education and counseling of the general public with respect to appropriate athletic training programs.
(e) Nothing in this subsection (3.5) shall be construed as conferring any authority to practice, or to hold oneself out through advertisement or billing as providing, physical therapy as defined in section 12-41-103.
(f) The state board of medical examiners shall seek the voluntary assistance of physicians and athletic trainers in developing and formulating the rules and regulations required to be promulgated pursuant to this subsection (3.5).
(4) All licensees designated or referred to in subsection (3) of this section, who are licensed to practice a limited field of the healing arts, shall confine themselves strictly to the field for which they are licensed and to the scope of their respective licenses, and shall not use any title, word, or abbreviation mentioned in paragraph (d) of subsection (1) of this section, except to the extent and under the conditions expressly permitted by the law under which they are licensed.
(5) (a) A person licensed under the laws of this state to practice medicine may delegate to a physician assistant certified by the board the authority to perform acts which constitute the practice of medicine to the extent and in the manner authorized by rules and regulations promulgated by the board, including the authority to prescribe medication, including controlled substances, and dispense only such drugs as designated by the board. Such acts shall be consistent with sound medical practice. Each prescription issued by a physician assistant certified by the board shall have imprinted thereon the name of his or her supervising physician. Nothing in this subsection (5) shall limit the ability of otherwise licensed health personnel to perform delegated acts. The dispensing of prescription medication by a physician assistant shall be subject to the provisions of section 12-22-121 (6).
(b) (I) If the authority to perform an act is delegated pursuant to paragraph (a) of this subsection (5), the act shall not be performed except under the personal and responsible direction and supervision of a person licensed under the laws of this state to practice medicine, and said person shall not be responsible for the direction and supervision of more than two physician assistants at any one time without specific approval of the board. The board may define appropriate direction and supervision pursuant to rules and regulations.
(II) For purposes of this subsection (5), "personal and responsible direction and supervision" means that the direction and supervision of a physician assistant must be personally rendered by a licensed physician practicing in the state of Colorado and not through intermediaries. The extent of direction and supervision shall be determined by rules and regulations promulgated by the board and as otherwise provided in this paragraph (b); except that, when a physician assistant is performing a delegated medical function in an acute care hospital, the board shall allow supervision and direction to be performed without the physical presence of the physician during the time the delegated medical functions are being implemented if:
(A) Such medical functions are performed where the supervising physician regularly practices or in a designated health manpower shortage area;
(B) The licensed supervising physician reviews the quality of medical services rendered by the physician assistant every two working days by reviewing the medical records to assure compliance with the physicians' directions; and
(C) The performance of the delegated medical function otherwise complies with the board's regulations and any restrictions and protocols of the licensed supervising physician and hospital.
(III) If the state board of medical examiners has a reasonable belief that additional supervision or direction may be necessary it may issue a cease and desist order to the supervising physician or physician assistant to require that a function be delegated only on a case-by-case basis, or to require that the supervising physician be present on the premises in specific types of cases that arise in an acute care hospital setting. Such a cease and desist order shall become effective upon delivery to the supervising physician or physician assistant to whom it is issued. Any supervising physician or physician assistant who receives such an order may request a hearing on the merits of the order, which request shall be promptly granted. Any restriction or requirement imposed by such an order shall not be deemed a disciplinary action, restriction, or other limitation on the physician's license or the physician assistant's certification.
(c) To become certified, a physician assistant shall have:
(I) Successfully completed an education program for physician assistants which conforms to standards approved by the board, which standards may be established by utilizing the assistance of any responsible accrediting organization; and
(II) Successfully completed the national certifying examination for assistants to the primary care physician which is administered by the national commission on certification of physician assistants or successfully completed any other examination approved by the board; and
(III) Applied to the board on the forms and in the manner designated by the board and paid the appropriate fee established by the board pursuant to section 24-34-105, C.R.S.; and
(IV) Attained the age of twenty-one years.
(d) The board may determine whether any applicant for certification as a physician assistant possesses sufficient education, experience, or training in health care which may be accepted in lieu of the qualifications required for certification under subparagraph (I) of paragraph (c) of this subsection (5). Every person who desires to qualify for practice as a physician assistant within this state shall file with the secretary of the board his written application for certification, on which application he shall list any act the commission of which would be grounds for disciplinary action against a certified physician assistant under section 12-36-117, along with an explanation of the circumstances of such act. The board may deny certification to any applicant who has performed any act which constitutes unprofessional conduct, as defined in section 12-36-117.
(e) No person certified as a physician assistant may perform any act which constitutes the practice of medicine within a hospital or nursing care facility which is licensed pursuant to part 1 of article 3 of title 25, C.R.S., or which is required to obtain a certificate of compliance pursuant to section 25-1-107 (1) (l) (II), C.R.S., without authorization from the governing board of the hospital or nursing care facility. Such governing board shall have the authority to grant, deny, or limit such authority to its own established procedures.
(f) The board may take any disciplinary action with respect to a physician assistant certificate as it may with respect to the license of a physician, in accordance with procedures established pursuant to this article.
(g) Pursuant to the provisions of section 12-36-132, the board may apply for an injunction to enjoin any person from performing delegated medical acts which are in violation of this section or of any rules and regulations promulgated by the board.
(h) This subsection (5) shall not apply to any person who performs delegated medical tasks within the scope of the exemption contained in paragraph (l) of subsection (3) of this section.
(i) The board shall certify and keep a record of physician assistants who have been certified pursuant to paragraph (c) of this subsection (5) and shall establish renewal fees and schedules subject to the provisions of section 24-34-102 (8), C.R.S. Every certified physician assistant shall pay to the secretary of the board a registration fee to be determined and collected pursuant to section 24-34-105, C.R.S., and shall obtain a registration certificate for the current calendar year.
(j) This subsection (5) is repealed, effective July 1, 2010.

 

Am. Jur.2d. See 61 Am. Jur.2d, Physicians, Surgeons, and Other Healers, § § 2, 34-36, 63-68.
C.J.S. See 70 C.J.S., Physicians, Surgeons, and Other Health-Care Providers, § § 2-7.
Law reviews. For comment on Moon v. Mercy Hosp., appearing below, see 35 U. Colo. L. Rev. 612 (1963). For article, "The Physician-Patient Privilege in Colorado", see 37 U. Colo. L. Rev. 349 (1965).
Annotator's note. Since § 12-36-106 is similar to repealed CSA, C. 109, § 14, and laws antecedent thereto, relevant cases construing those provisions have been included in the annotations to this section.
Midwives' equal protection rights are not violated by section because the prohibition of lay midwifery bears a rational relationship to the state's legitimate interest in protecting the health of the pregnant woman and her child. People v. Rosburg, 805 P.2d 432 (Colo. 1991).
Subsection prohibiting practice by lay midwives is not unconstitutionally vague. People v. Rosburg, 805 P.2d 432 (Colo. 1991).
Term "practice of midwifery" is not unconstitutionally vague on its face. People v. Rosburg, 805 P.2d 432 (Colo. 1991).
The state has the right to determine and define what constitutes the practice of medicine. Smith v. People, 51 Colo. 270, 117 P. 612 (1911), citing Harding v. People, 10 Colo. 387, 15 P. 727 (1887).
This section defines the phrase, "practice of medicine", in great detail. Moon v. Mercy Hosp., 150 Colo. 430, 373 P.2d 944 (1962); Colorado Chiropractic Ass'n v. State, 171 Colo. 395, 467 P.2d 795 (1970).
Record-keeping is part of the practice of medicine. State Bd. of Med. Examiners v. McCroskey, 940 P.2d 1044 (Colo. App. 1996).
"Practice of medicine" is the closest term to "medical attendance" to be found in the articles relating to the healing arts. Colorado Chiropractic Ass'n v. State, 171 Colo. 395, 467 P.2d 795 (1970).
The practice of medicine has been judicially defined as judging the nature, character, and symptoms of the disease, determining the proper remedy for the disease, and giving or prescribing the application of the remedy to the disease. Hurley v. People, 99 Colo. 510, 63 P.2d 1227 (1936).
An exception to the practice of medicine, as defined, is made for the practice of chiropractic, as well as other limited fields of the healing arts, under conditions and limitations specifically defined in the statutes. Colorado Chiropractic Ass'n v. State, 171 Colo. 395, 467 P.2d 795 (1970).
Although this section defines general aspects of the practice of medicine and provides significant guidance, it remains the Board's responsibility to determine whether specific acts fall within the broad scope of medical practice for the purpose of discipline under § 12-36-117. State Bd. of Med. Examiners v. McCroskey, 940 P.2d 1044 (Colo. App. 1996).
Statute gives adequate warning of proscribed activity and therefore is not impermissibly vague. People v. Jeffers, 690 P.2d 194 (Colo. 1984).
The meaning of subsection (1)(b) encompasses a continuing process of treatment and healing, not just isolated moments or acts within a course of treatment. People ex rel. McFarlane v. Pfeiffer, 725 P.2d 19 (Colo. App. 1986).
Respondent's advertising in which he holds himself out as one capable of treating the medical condition of obesity and recommends Prozac to all potential patients as a form of treatment for that condition falls within the definition of the practice of medicine. State Bd. of Medical Examiners v. Thompson, 944 P.2d 547 (Colo. App. 1996).
Physician assistant may render medical opinion in workers' compensation hearing on question of temporary disability. Sims v. Industrial Claim Appeals Office, 797 P.2d 777 (Colo. App. 1990).
The general assembly made clear its intention to restrict the practice of those licensed to practice in a limited field of the healing arts. Colorado Chiropractic Ass'n v. State, 171 Colo. 395, 467 P.2d 795 (1970).
The courses of study of the several limited branches of the healing arts are not determinative of the scope of practice permitted under any given license. Colorado Chiropractic Ass'n v. State, 171 Colo. 395, 467 P.2d 795 (1970).
For discussion of an earlier statute, see Higgins v. State Bd. of Medical Exmrs., 46 Colo. 476, 104 P. 953 (1909).
Craniosacral manipulation for the relief of pain from temporomandibular joint dysfunction constitutes the practice of dentistry and is therefore exempt from the medical licensing requirements. Colorado Bd. of Med. Examiners v. Raemer, 794 P.2d 1075 (Colo. App. 1990), appeal dismissed, 801 P.2d 536 (Colo. 1990).


Rules and Regulations
INDEX

 


 

MINIMUM PRACTICE REQUIREMENTS

General Authority C.R.S. 12-37-106

Section 12-37-105

1. RESTRICTIONS

1.1 The registered direct-entry midwife shall not provide care to any woman whose medical history shows the following:

a. Diabetes mellitus or gestational diabetes;

b. Hypertensive disease (BP greater than 140/90 at rest);

c. Pulmonary disease or cardiac disease which interferes with activities of daily living;

d. A history of thrombophlebitis or pulmonary embolism;

e. Blood dyscrasia, for example sickle cell anemia;

f. Seizures controlled by medication if the mother has seized within the last year;

g. Hepatitis B, HIV positive or AIDS;

h. Current use of psychotropic medications;

i. Current substance abuse (drugs or alcohol);

j. Rh sensitization (positive antibody titre), an incompetent cervix; or previous uncontrollable postpartum hemorrhage; or

k. The midwife shall not provide care to any woman who has had a previous cesarean section whose emergency plan does not include the ability to transport, within 30 minutes, to a facility able to perform a cesarean section or,

l. Infants who were premature, stillborn, or neonatal deaths associated with maternal health or genetic anomaly without an intervening normal pregnancy

1.2 The registered direct-entry midwife shall not:

a. Perform any operative or surgical procedures;

b. Utilize any instruments or mechanical means of delivery, other than hemostats to clamp the cord;

c. Perform versions; or

d. Administer any medications except for eye prophylaxis of the newborn.

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2. ANTEPARTUM CARE

2.1 The registered direct-entry midwife shall schedule patient visits at least once a month from the first trimester through 28 weeks; every 2 weeks from 28 weeks through 35 weeks; and weekly from 36 weeks to delivery.

2.2 At the time of the initial visit for care the registered direct-entry midwife shall, at a minimum:

a. Obtain a medical, obstetrical, family and nutritional history;

b. Determine the EDC and perform a baseline physical examination;

c. Arrange to or obtain laboratory testing to include: blood group and Rh type, if unknown; Coombs test for all Rh negative mothers; CBC with differential; rubella titre; serology for syphilis; hepatitis B screen, urine for protein and glucose, culture if indicated; GC screen and/or Chlamydia culture if needed based on social history, offer HIV testing;

d. Discuss home birth, options to home birth, risk assessment and referral procedures; and

e. Provide the client the Mandatory Disclosure form and obtain informed consent on forms provided by the Director. Complete the emergency plan.

2.3 Care consistent with generally accepted standards of safe care for women and infants during each prenatal visit shall include, at a minimum, but not be limited to:

a. Vital signs and weight;

b. Urine dipstick for protein and glucose;

c. Assessing for:

(1) Edema, headaches, visual disturbances, dizziness or sharp pains in legs, abdomen, chest or head and reflexes if indicated;

(2) Mother’s psychological and emotional status;

(3) Nutritional status;

(4) Fundal height and

(5) Fetus for gestational age, presentation and position; estimated fetal weight; fetal activity, listen for fetal heart tones and record when first audible;

d. Chart all findings, interventions and outcomes including the quickening date;

e. Provide teaching, guidance and referral as appropriate;

f. Discuss the emergency plan and revise if needed.

2.4 Laboratory studies are repeated during pregnancy including Indirect Coombs test at 28 and 36 weeks, if indicated; Hemoglobin and/or Hematocrit at 28 and 36 weeks; and a one Hour Glucose Tolerance Test with a minimum of a 50 Gram glucose loading dose shall be offered to the patient at 26-28 weeks;

2.5 At least one home visit shall be made during the third trimester to assure that environmental conditions are appropriate, supplies are procured and birth participants are prepared for the home birth.

2.6 The registered direct-entry midwife shall refer mothers for evaluation by a qualified licensed health care provider and shall not continue as the care provider when a multiple gestation or a presentation other than vertex at the onset of labor are noted.

2.7 The registered direct-entry midwife shall refer mothers for evaluation by a qualified licensed health care provider and shall not continue as the primary care provider without the mother's consultation with a health care provider when the following conditions are noted until the mother has been assessed by the licensed health care provider and that provider has determined, based upon generally accepted medical standards, the pregnant woman is not exhibiting signs or symptoms of increased risk of medical or obstetrical or neonatal complications or problems during the completion of her pregnancy, labor, delivery or the post partum period, and is not exhibiting signs and symptoms of increased risk that her child may develop complications or problems during the first 6 weeks of life:

a. Urine glucose of 2+ or greater on two sequential visits or if other signs or symptoms of gestational diabetes occur with the urine glucose;

b. Hyperemesis beyond the 24th week of gestation;

c. Hypertension - BP greater than 140/90 or an increase from the baseline of greater than 30 mm Hg in the systolic or 15 mm Hg in the diastolic pressure;

d. Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia including but not limited to persistent edema, increased blood pressure or proteinuria, increased reflexes, persistent headaches, epigastric pain or, visual disturbances;

e. Seizures;

f. Vaginal bleeding after 20 weeks;

g. Signs and symptoms of urinary infections or sexually transmitted disease;

h. Oral temperature in excess of 101. 0 F for more than 24 hours accompanied by other signs or symptoms of clinically significant infection, or, which does not resolve within 72 hours;

i. Laboratory results indicating need for medical treatment, for example, a positive culture;

j. Anemia not responding to over the counter iron therapy as measured by Hemoglobin below 11 grams or Hematocrit below 34% at term;

k. Signs and symptoms of polyhydramnios or oligohydramnios;

l. Suspected fetal demise - lack of fetal movement, inability to auscultate fetal heart tones;

m. Decreased fetal movements;

n. Gestation longer than 42 weeks;

o. Rupture of membranes for longer than 12 hours without labor;

p. Premature labor - less than 37 weeks gestation;

q. Active herpes;

r. Intrauterine growth retardation; or

s. Suspected abnormality of pelvis;

2.8 The Registered Direct-Entry Midwife shall perform pervimetry by 36 weeks gestation.

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3. INTRAPARTUM CARE

3.1 The direct-entry midwife is responsible for making arrangements to be with the patient by the time labor has been established as determined by contractions occurring every 5 minutes or cervical dilation of 5 cm or more, once labor has been so established, the registered direct-entry midwife shall remain with the mother.

3.2 When membranes rupture, the registered direct-entry midwife shall perform a sterile vaginal exam for prolapsed cord if the presenting part is not engaged and record fetal heart tones. In the case of rupture of the membranes without labor, no further vaginal checks shall be made.

3.3 Aseptic technique and universal precautions will be used while rendering care.

3.4 The registered direct-entry midwife is responsible for monitoring the status of the mother and baby during labor and delivery including:

a. Maternal vital signs and physical well being

(1) Maternal temperature, pulse and respirations shall be measured at least every 4 hours, and;

(2) Maternal blood pressure shall be measured at least every four hours in early labor and hourly during the active phase of labor;

(3) Check for bladder distention, signs of maternal fatigue, and hydration status.

b. Fetal vital signs and well being:

(1) Fetal heart tones in response to contractions as well as when the uterus is at rest. These shall be assessed, at a minimum, every hour during early labor, every half hour during active labor and every 5-10 minutes during the second stage of labor;

(2) Normality of fetal lie, presentation, attitude and position

c. Progress of labor including cervical effacement and dilation, station, presenting part and position;

d. Coaching the birthing family;

e. Obtaining a cord blood specimen, if feasible, which shall accompany the infant in case of transport;

f. Checking the placenta and blood vessels and estimating blood loss;

g. Checking the perineum and vaginal vault for tears; and

h. Checking the cervix for tears and, if present, making appropriate referral.

3.5 The registered direct-entry midwife shall arrange for immediate consultation and transport according to the emergency plan if the following conditions exist:

a. Bleeding other than capillary bleeding ("show") prior to delivery;

b. Signs of placental abruption including continuous lower abdominal pain and tenderness;

c. Prolapse of the cord;

d. Any meconium staining without reassuring fetal heart tones, moderate or greater meconium staining regardless of status of fetal heart tones;

e. Significant change in maternal vital signs;

(1) Temperature greater than 101oF

(2) Pulse over 100 with decrease in blood pressure,

(3) Increase in blood pressure greater than 140/90 or an increase of 30 mm Hg systolic or 15 mm Hg diastolic;

f. Failure to progress in labor:

(1) Lack of steady progress in dilation and descent after 24 hours in the primipara or 18 hours in the multipara,

(2) Second stage of labor without steady progress of descent through the mid-pelvis and/or pelvic outlet longer than two hours in the primipara or one hour in the multipara,

(3) Third stage of labor longer than one hour;

g. Fetal heart rate below 120 or above 160 between contractions;

h. Protein or glucose in the urine;

i. Seizures;

j. Atonic uterus;

k. Retained placental fragments;

l. Vaginal or cervical lacerations requiring repair; or

m. Client requests transport.

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4. POSTPARTUM CARE

4.1 The direct-entry midwife shall remain with the mother and infant for a minimum of two hours after the birth or until the mother and infant are stable, whichever is longest.

4.2 The direct-entry midwife shall make a follow up visit within 72 hours to assess the progress of the mother and infant. Such visit shall include an assessment of, at a minimum, fundus, lochia, perineum, breasts, nutrition, hydration, elimination, emotional adjustment and bonding.

4.3 The direct-entry midwife shall instruct the mother and family in self care until the follow up visit is done.

4.4 The direct-entry midwife shall refer all Rh negative mothers for Rhogam within 72 hours of the birth.

4.5 The direct-entry midwife shall arrange for consultation and/ or transport when:

a. There is maternal blood loss of more than 500 cc;

b. The mother has a fever of greater than 101oF on any of the second through 10th days postpartum;

c. The mother cannot void within 6 hours after birth;

d. The lochia is excessive, foul smelling, or otherwise abnormal; or

e. There are signs of clinically significant depression (not the "baby blues").

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5. NEWBORN CARE

5.1 The direct-entry midwife will perform the following care for the newborn:

a. Apgar scores at one minute and five minutes after birth and at 10 minutes if the 5 minute score is below 7;

b A physical assessment including assessing presence of femoral pulses. Upper and lower extremity blood pressures should be obtained if equipment is available;

c. Eye prophylaxis within 1 hour after birth as provided by CRS 25-4-303;

d. Weigh the infant and measure height and head circumference, check for normal reflexes;

e. Perform a gestational age assessment; and

f. Arrange to or obtain laboratory testing on the infant of an Rh negative mother to include blood type and Coombs test.

5.2 The direct-entry midwife shall arrange for or obtain the required newborn screenings required by CRS 25-4-1004.

5.3 The direct-entry midwife shall recommend that the mother arrange for the administration of Vitamin K by a licensed health care provider soon after birth.

5.4 The direct-entry midwife shall arrange for immediate transport for the infant who exhibits the following signs:

a. Apgar of 7 or less at ten minutes;

b. Respiratory distress exhibited by respirations greater than 60 per minute, grunting, retractions, nasal flaring at one hour of age that is not showing consistent improvement;

c. Inability to maintain body temperature;

d. Medically significant anomaly;

e. Seizures;

f. Fontanel full and bulging;

g. Suspected birth injuries;

h. Cardiac irregularities;

i. Pale, cyanotic, gray newborn; or

j. Lethargy or poor muscle tone.

5.5 The direct-entry midwife will arrange for consultation and/or transport for an infant who exhibits the following:

a. Signs of hypoglycemia including Jitteriness;

b. Abnormal cry;

c. Passes no urine in 12 hours or meconium in 24 hours;

d. Projectile vomiting;

e. Inability to suck;

f. Pulse greater than 180 or less than 80 at rest;

g. Jaundice within 24 hours of birth; or

h. Positive Coombs test.

5.6 Follow up visits shall include assessment of the infant to include umbilical cord, temperature, pulse, respirations, weight, skin color and hydration status, feeding and elimination, sleep/wake patterns and bonding.

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6. RECORD KEEPING

6.1 The direct-entry midwife shall keep appropriate records on all patients. All records shall:

a. Be accurate, current, and comprehensive, giving information concerning the condition and care of the client and associated observations;

b. Provide a record of any problems that arise and the actions taken in response to them;

c. Provide evidence of care required, interventions by professional practitioners and patient responses;

d. Include a record of any factors (physical, psychological or social) that appear to affect the patient;

e. Record the chronology of events and the reasons behind decisions made;

f. Provide baseline data against which improvement or deterioration may be judged;

g. Have a signature and date for each entry; and

k. All records shall be made available to the receiving health care provider in the event of transfer of care or the transport of mother and/or newborn.

6.2 The patient records shall include, at a minimum:

a. Risk assessment;

b. Mandatory disclosure form;

c. Informed consent form and emergency plan;

d. Assessments, interventions and recommendations for each prenatal visit;

e. Progress of labor and maternal assessments during labor;

f. Fetal assessments during labor;

g. Apgar scores and newborn examination;

h. Administration of eye prophylaxis;

i. Refusal of care by the mother;

j. Filing the birth certificate as required by CRS 25-2-112;

k. Follow-up postpartum visits; and

l. Statement of verification that one copy of the record was provided to the mother or the health care provider of her choice.

m. Baseline blood pressure determined prior to the end of the second trimester or upon the initial visit if such visit occurs subsequent to the second trimester.

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7. EMERGENCY PLAN

The time required for transportation to the nearest facility capable of providing appropriate treatment shall not exceed 30 minutes, unless the emergency plan prepared by the direct-entry midwife and the client, on the form prescribed by the Director, includes an estimate of time for transportation for appropriate treatment for the conditions listed in sections 2.7, 3.5, 4.5, 5.4 and 5.5 and such plan is consented to by both the patient and the direct-entry midwife. A copy of such plan shall be given to the client.

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STANDARDS FOR EDUCATION

Each applicant for registration shall submit proof of education meeting the following minimum criteria.

1. The apprenticeship/clinical practice shall be for a minimum of one calendar year.

2. The theoretical/tutorial content shall include, at a minimum:

(A) Basic knowledge and skills:

(1) Basic sciences to include anatomy and physiology, genetics, and microbiology;

(2) Aseptic technique and universal precautions;

(3) Infant and adult CPR; and

(4) Basic care skills;

B. Antepartum care

(1) Physical assessment skills;

(2) Psychological changes during pregnancy;

(3) Normal pregnancy, including growth and development of the embryo and fetus;

(4) Laboratory test interpretation;

(5) Risk factor assessment for referral including, but not limited to, recognition of early signs of abnormalities;

(6) Childbirth education; and

(7) Recognition and management of emergency situations.

(8)    Nutrition for mother and newborn;

C. Intrapartal care

(1) Physical assessment skills;

(2) Psychological changes during labor and delivery;

(3) Physical care skills;

(4) Normal process of labor;

(5) Normal vaginal delivery;

(6) Risk factor assessment for referral;

(7) Recognition and management of emergency situations; and

(8) Special requirements for home birth.

D. Postpartal care

(1) Physical assessment skills;

(2) Psychological changes in adapting to motherhood;

(3) Physical care skills;

(4) Normal involution;

(5) Risk factor assessment for referral;

(6) Breast feeding; and

(7) Recognition and management of emergency situations.

E. Care of the Newborn

(1) Apgar scoring;

(2) Physical assessment;

(3) Physiological adjustment to extrauterine life;

(4) Risk factor assessment for referral;

(5) Nutritional needs;

(6) Physical care skills including administration of eye prophylaxis; and

(7) Recognition and management of emergency situations.

(8) Growth and Development - Birth to one year;

F. Legal issues

(1) Minimum standards for midwifery practice;

(2) Required laboratory testing for newborns;

(3) Charting of care;

(4) Vital statistics forms/reporting; and